pmer
12-18-2018, 09:25 AM
My church uses this passage as a guide for the calling of elders. The pastor is floating the idea about divorce and if a person who was divorced can pass the phrase of "must be a husband of one wife".
I don't think that is the intent from reading the notes provided in my son's study bible. In there it speaks more about the intent of ones moral compass, multiple wives and flirtatiousness.
My first thought is no because Paul doesn't use the divorce in that passage. I want to say that adding the criteria of divorce is out of context to the intent of the passage. Or does it lend itself to ones character which can lead to the divorce? What if there was divorce but this person is a growing Christian?
I'm not running for anything just wrestling with a thought.
In fact the Greek translation to "desire" in verse one reflects; to long for, desire, covet & lust. Is this more about Paul telling Timothy to look out for the guy who is overly excited to get in power?
I don't think that is the intent from reading the notes provided in my son's study bible. In there it speaks more about the intent of ones moral compass, multiple wives and flirtatiousness.
My first thought is no because Paul doesn't use the divorce in that passage. I want to say that adding the criteria of divorce is out of context to the intent of the passage. Or does it lend itself to ones character which can lead to the divorce? What if there was divorce but this person is a growing Christian?
I'm not running for anything just wrestling with a thought.
In fact the Greek translation to "desire" in verse one reflects; to long for, desire, covet & lust. Is this more about Paul telling Timothy to look out for the guy who is overly excited to get in power?